In Aristotles Politics, Aristotle poses the question Is there any one thus intended by nature to be a slave, and for whom such a condition is expedient and right, or rather is not all slavery a violation of nature? (Aristotle, Politics, Book here) In other words, are some people born and destined to be slaves? If so, does that mean they should be proud of such a thing? Aristotle answers his own question by stating There is no difficulty in answering this question, on grounds both of reason and of fact. For that some should rule and others be ruled is a thing not only necessary, but expedient; from the hour of their birth, some are marked out for subjection, others for rule.(Aristotle, Politics, Book , same link as up there). To put it in a simpler manner; some are born to rule and others are just born to serve. The passage from Aristotles politics serves two purposes. One, many societies and cultures after Aris
totle have used his book as a foundation on how to run their society and control the people. Two, the passage serves as a foundation to answer the main question posed; How have cultures and societies evolved from the effects and ramifications of slavery?. Slavery has long existed before the time of Aristotle. A well recognized example would be the enslavement of the Hebrew people by the Pharaohs of Egypt. Would Aristotle justify such enslavement by stating that the slaves should be elated that they are slaves because that is what they are meant to be? Moses could not agree with the notion that others are born to rule their inferior. Moses freed the chosen people and gave them a religion with one central theme; So God created mankind in his own image, in the image of God he created them; male and female he created them. That would mean that no man could be greater than another because man is created in his image.